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Don unregistered |
CHRISTOS
In the east the god's lingam or erect penis of his statue was anointed with holy oil Before anointing with oil, the god's phallus was ofen reddened to the color of life with Among the pagans the temple virgin deflowering herself on the god's carved phallus Among the Essenes a CHRISTOS was a priest,specifically designated Sin Bearer or Among the Slavs,CHRISTOS or Krstnik meant a sacrfical hero and alsoan "accursed Did you know that the Latins worship a god called "CHRISTOS HELIOS" There were also gods by the name "CHRESTON","CHRESTOS" [This message has been edited by Don (edited 11-27-1999).] [This message has been edited by Don (edited 12-01-1999).] IP: Logged |
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Lou Posts: 789 |
Don, Your post is very interesting, but where did you get all that information? Can you document it? Shabbat shalom, Lou IP: Logged |
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Don unregistered |
Shalom Lou You bet! (Edward Philip.The Art of Tantia.New York Graphic Society,1973 page29) (Scott,George Ryley.Phallic Worship page 167) (Leland Charles Godfrey Gypsy Sorcery and Fortune Telling 1962 page145) (The Hebrew Dictionary) (Koster C.J. Come Out of Her My People) The post on Christos are direct quotes from these books! [This message has been edited by Don (edited 11-28-1999).] IP: Logged |
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Lou Posts: 789 |
Shalom Don, I wish you would have placed the actual quote and source in a way that it will be easier on everybody to see it without having to read hundreds of pages to get to where the ingformation is. I wish to see your statements documented "chapter and verse" before I can use them. I documented the "virgin Mary"s conception experience. I really thought that it was very unusual, but then of course, the Puritans didn't make the scene until recently. Sha'ul documented the fact that the Christians at Corinth were more inmoral than the Heathen themselves, both spiritually and physically. I don't think that Sha'ul was "spiritualizing" when he stated that the inmorality among the Corinthian believers were "unheard" among the Heathen... So please make it easier on us and post the quotes duly documented so that we can all verify them easily. IP: Logged |
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Don unregistered |
Shalom Lou I'll see if I a can do better! CHRISTOS
In the east the god's lingam or erect penis of his statue was anointed with holy oil Before anointing with oil, the god's phallus was ofen reddened to the color of life with Because kingship once depended on the sacred marrage,anointing became the official rite Among the pagans the temple virgin deflowering herself on the god's carved phallus Among the Slavs,CHRISTOS or Krstnik meant a sacrfical hero and alsoan "accursed [This message has been edited by Don (edited 12-01-1999).] IP: Logged |
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JustBill Posts: 193 |
It all gets very confusing when everything is written in English (Latin) script. The Hebrew word is mem-shin-yod-het, which is transliterated to English as "Mashiakh". The "native" Greek word is chi-rho-iota-sigma-tau-omicron-sigma, which is transliterated into English as "Christos". The "native" English term is "anointed one". There may have been an Old English term for this that has passed out of use because English has adopted terms from Hebrew and Greek. The Anglicized version of the Hebrew word is "Messiah", and the Anglicized version of the Greek term is "Christ". "Messias" is a transliteration into English of the Hellenized form of the Hebrew term. Confusing? Remember any time you write a word in a non-native script it is a transliteration. JustBill [This message has been edited by JustBill (edited 11-30-1999).] IP: Logged |
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Don unregistered |
Shalom Brother Wild Bill I am SO CONFUSED at least about your post anyway! So what are you saying Bro.? Is the Greek Christ correct and true to the Hebrew TEXT, IP: Logged |
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Lou Posts: 789 |
Shalom everybody... In my humble opinion, I believe that the Hebrew "HaMaschiach" can lawfully be translated into English as "the Anointed One" because it is not a name but a title (actually the word is a passive verb form). Why translate something already translated into Greek as "Xhristos" and then take that Greek word and transliterate it into English as "Christ." The obvious reason doing it that way is because "Christ" is Greek. Check any of the early church father's writings and you will see that about 80 per cent of the time they use the title "christ" as a proper noun insted of "Iesous." The early church fathers loved the name of "Christ" far more than "Jesus." The noun "christ" in the Greek culture is meaningless because they never anointed anyone with oil for any public office like the Israelites did. I think that if the church fathers would have done correct translations, the followers of "the Anointed One" would be called "Anointians" in English. Although, "for me and my house we serve Yahweh" said Yahushua ben Nun. The word "anointed" already existed in the English language when the English speaking Christians decided to go for "Christ." Very few Christians would love to be called "Jesuits," and much less "Anointians." I wonder why? I can't get over the fact that they are like the early church fathers. They don't seem to love the name of "Jesus" as much as "Christ." They named themselves after a title that can be atributed to anyone in any culture. I wonder why. I think that they do it to shut out the sacred name of Yahweh... Anyway, Don, thank you for the quotes. Now I got something to go by. Shalom aleichem, [This message has been edited by Lou (edited 12-04-1999).] IP: Logged |
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ShaniYah Posts: 302 |
Lou, I am with you. That was such a good post. Thank you ------------------ IP: Logged |
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