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![]() Correct pronunciation, Yahweh or Yahveh? Is "Elohim" a correct term for our Creator?
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| Author | Topic: Correct pronunciation, Yahweh or Yahveh? Is "Elohim" a correct term for our Creator? |
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Follower, Sar Shalom Posts: 114 |
Dear brothers and sisters, Shalom (Peace) and Chesed (Loving-Kindness) to you in Yahshua's Name and to all of the scattered brethren who comprise the Great Family of Yahweh.I'm interested to see anyone responding to this post who has done some in-depth research on the most ancient pronunciation of our Heavenly Father's Name in Hebrew (or the original language given to Adam and Eve). I’ve been using the pronunciation "Yahweh", since I was ten years old. However, recently I’ve come in contact with some brethren who use the pronunciation of "Yahveh", because some of the language scholars assert that the pronunciation had to be "Yahveh" in the time of Mosheh. Does anyone have any concrete evidence about this subject that they can email to me and/or post? I believe that either form is correct as the set-apart name of our Creator. However, I would like to know and use whichever form of His name is most correct. I'm talking more than the debate concerning Sephardic hebrew using the "w" and Askenazi hebrew using the "v". I'm referring to ancient hebrew or the semitic language that was in use before that period. I'm also curious to know why the terms "el", "eloah" and "elohim" are all used for the Heavenly Father in the scriptures. Is it possible that the scribes adopted the term "elohim" from the Canaanites and then applied this term to our Creator? Or, is it possible that Elohim is used for the Creator due to a plural of majesty, or some other reason? It appears at times that the term "elohim" is used in place of Yahveh's name in the scriptures (which would agree with the postulate that this came from the e source (a group of writings where the scribes used elohim in place of the Heavenly Father's name). However, in many other cases, the term "elohim" is used as a common title for Him, such as in "Yahweh, our Elohim" (Holy Name Bible). Is it possible that the scribes could have mingled so many sources of scriptures together into one? That is, the "J" source (uses Yahweh's name), the "E" source (uses Elohim for the name of the Creator, and there is also the "P" source, or Priestly source. If elohim is simply a common semitic term, then why is a plural form "Elohim" used for our Creator when the scriptures say that He is only one? I don't agree with the concept that elohim in the Torah refers to Yahweh and Yahshua, because I don't believe that Yahshua pre-existed (other than in the word, logos, intent, or plan of Yahweh), before he was conceived by Yahweh in the womb of Miriam. However, this is a completely different subject for another forum and includes a tremendous amount of research into the original hebrew scriptures to prove this point. The modern day translaters have twisted many scriptures on this subject because they did believe that Yahshua (they use Jesus) did pre-exist alongside of the Creator through-out eternity, and that is why they translated the scriptures the way they did on many of these instances. I believe that Yahshua came (was made, conceived, begotten, created) in the flesh. I learned this when I was in the House of Yahweh of Abilene, Texas. Even though I don't agree with a lot that has gone on at this congregation, I do appreciate the fact that I did learn some things while I was there. However, there are many other sacred name believers that believe this same way that are not with this particular group. I can see that possibly "el", "baal" and "adonai" were all common semitic titles that could have been used for our Heavenly Father in mankind's original language. However, at the same time the heathen would have used these titles for their gods (elohim), and even made proper names out of these titles (because they believed that their idol or god was a mighty one or master). The jewish people even up to now insist on replacing Yahweh's awesome name with these mere titles when they come to YHWH in the scriptures, when in fact, Yahweh tells us not to add to His word or take away from it. Is this why the prophesy says that Yahweh will take the names of baalim out of our mouths? The prophesies also point out that eventually Yahweh alone will be worshiped, and His name will be the only name extolled. HalleluYah! We are to serve Yahweh only, as Yahshua told the adversary when he was being tempted. IP: Logged |
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yaakov7 Posts: 14 |
i have a tract from the Assemblies of Yahweh in Bethel PA- Yahweh His Eternal Memorial Unveiled. On page 2 they quote Edward Horowitz from his book How The Hebrew Language Grew. "The Yemenite Jews of Arabia who retain an ancient, correct, and pure pronunciation of Hebrew still pronounce the [waw] as "w" -- as does Arabic, the close sister language of Hebrew." i have no way of judging the source- just sharing the info. Lotsa luck, this is one of the topics where whoever can produce the research that weighs the most wins. So they think. IP: Logged |
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Shushan Posts: 52 |
I think if you go to http://www.yahweh.org and download the book called SACRED NAME YAHWEH, it will answer all your questions on Yahweh, Yahushua, El, Elohim, Eloah, etc. Its an excellent book, and all the books at this web address are free. Shalom, p.s. I have a Hebrew language book and it says that the W, or Waw in hebrew, is Biblical hebrew where the V or Vav came in much afterwards. IP: Logged |
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ZaMZaM Posts: 1 |
The 'vav' corruption of the Semitic 'waw' comes from the Ashkenazi Jews who were a Turkic tribe that embraced Judaism. In the Turkic languages, the Semitic 'waw' is not pronounced, instead it is replaced with the 'vav' sound. The Seljuk and Ottoman Turks also corrupted Arabic in this way when they embraced Islam and with it parts of the Arabic language. Unfortunately the bulk of todays 'Jews' are Ashkenazi and are therefore not even of Semitic origin. When the Arabs conquered the region that the Ashkenazi Jews originated from, they associated this people with two figures their prophet had warned them of, Yajuj and Majuj. This was around 500 years before this people embraced Judaism. Perhaps Gog and Magog have already infiltrated 'Israel' and are now actively working to destroy it. Or perhaps they already have. ZaMZaM IP: Logged |
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Corey Posts: 26 |
Hello Follower,
Chapter 1 : Yah points out how the heathen have more respect for his great and dreadful Chapter 2 : Father Yah points out that the priests of Levi will have a double curse placed Chapter 3 : Yah promises that those who think often upon his name will be written into Chapter 4 : Father Yah promises that healing comes from his name. Now, if Father Yah goes to such great lengths in Malakyah to identify the importance of Now, for these prophecies to have any real meaning and not be pointless statements on So, how will Yah return a pure language to fulfill his promise of Zaphanyah 3:9 and clean It helps to see if Yah gave any clues by which to isolate where the truth is to be found 1. Father Yah himself confused the languages at the time of the tower of Would the Father's move to confuse the languages be a barrier that was purposely placed 2. Isayah 8:20 tells us that we should test what is taught to the standard of the "Law" 3. Father Yah did not lie to Mosheh in Exodus 3:13-15 when he claimed that the name of In this third point, it is very important to consider why Mosheh was told that Yah was the It would simply not make sense for the As for the pronounciation of YHWH or YHVH, I doubt that either one of these Yahweh and Yahveh we see that Yah is foundationally supported as the most consistant rendering. A proper Shalom IP: Logged |
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